Is it none of us is or none of us are?

Is it none of us is or none of us are?

While the word none can be either singular or plural, you need to examine meaning behind the whole phrase. Because you are using the word ‘us’, which is plural, the more grammatically correct answer would be “none of us are perfect”.

Which is correct None of them has or none of them have?

If “none” is singular, then the correct form is “None of them has come.” But, if “none” is plural, then you would need a plural form of the verb, so that “None of them have come” would be correct. The trick here is that “none” can be used with a singular verb or a plural verb, and either way is correct….

READ ALSO:   What are the rules of Daoism?

Which is correct None of you is or none of you are?

None of the are is certainly wrong, but so is none of them are. None is a singular noun and needs a singular verb. The fact that the prepositional phrase following it is plural does not change the verb.

Is it correct to say none are?

“None” can be singular or plural. Try to decide whether it means “not one”—in which case it’s singular—or “not any”—in which case it’s plural. And If you aren’t sure, “none is” is safer.

Which is correct neither of us is or neither of us are?

Informal: Neither of us is / are correct. Formal: Neither of us is correct. Informal: Neither of them is / are wrong.

What is the meaning of none of them?

(nʌn ) 1. quantifier. None of something means not even a small amount of it. None of a group of people or things means not even one of them.

READ ALSO:   What was the Royal Navy like before and after WW2?

What I say and do is none of your business?

—used to say that something is private information and should not be asked about “Who did you vote for?” “That’s none of your business.”

What is the difference between none and non?

Non means not when used as a prefix. Non is a prefix that means “not.” It is attached to other adjectives to negate them. None is usually used as a pronoun. It means “nothing, not any, no, zero.”

Is “none of the employees” correct grammar?

“None of the employees” is correct. When you use “none” you are talking about a group; when you use “neither,” you are talking about two people. In any case, the plural must be used for the noun. The verb that follows must be in singular, e.g., “None of the employees agrees with the cut in salary.”.

Is it “none of the employee” or “one of the one”?

Both are grammatically correct, but “none of the employee” means “no part of the one employee”. It’s correct, but it’d be very rarely used because it’s strange to refer to an employee’s parts. For example: The hungry monster ate all of the founder, the legs of the investor, and none of the employee.

READ ALSO:   What percentage of golfers are a 3 handicap?

Is it “employees or employees”?

Although both your examples are grammatically correct, it is more likely in context that you would simply refer to employees. However, you might include the article the if you had previously referred to either employees or the employees, as in:

How do you say there are no employees in the Department?

As long as you are referring to more than one subject, I would go with: There are not any employees in the department. There is no employee in the department. If the topic has no plural form (or is rarely used with a plural form), then I would consider “there isn’t any”: There are no employees.